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In Parshas Bo 10:1 it states למען שתי the yud here indicates that Hashem is doing the placing.

I was wondering that generally, the yud indicates possessiveness on nouns, however over here it is qualifying a verb, not a noun. There is a similar instance in Parshas "ויצא כט יט "טוב תתי .

I was wondering if there is any rule for when we find a yud suffix indication possessiveness (or more precisely explaining who is doing the action) on verbs.

  • Welcome to MiYodeya Yakov and thanks for this first question. Can I recommend you take the tour to get a sense of how the site works? Great to have you learn with us! – mbloch Jan 27 at 16:08
  • Thanks for the question. To give it more substance, could you please quote an example where the yud suffix on a verb indicates possessiveness? – Avrohom Yitzchok Jan 27 at 17:30
  • I don't understand how a verb can have a suffix for possessiveness, can you give an example? – kouty Jan 27 at 17:50
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    I think in both cases, the word is acting as a gerund rather than a verb. – Daniel Jan 27 at 17:58
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    If you don't mind my asking, have you never seen the same phenomenon in English? – Double AA Jan 28 at 22:16

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