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Following up on this answer.

The answer seems to conclude that one way that we measure happiness is by the saying of Hallel and it lists the days on which we say the whole of hallel. But we do not say the whole Hallel on the final 6 days of Pesach which would seem to elevate Chanukah (a rabbinic institution) over Pesach, a biblical salvation. Why is the rabbinic holiday (on which many of the enemy died) "happier" than the biblical existential event?

I understand that there are other reasons or thinking explaining why we don't say the whole of Hallel on the 6 days of Pesach but they seem to revolve around the Musaf (as compared to the days of Sukkot) but Chanukah has no Musaf attached to it so I don't understand why it would be elevated (to a position higher than Rosh Chodesh also) via that logic either.

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  • I say a bunch of relevant things at aishdas.org/asp/compassion-for-our-enemies . The Meshekh Chokhmah emphasizes that Purim and Chanukah are both timed after the war. In the case of Purim, we have the whole Shushan Purim to avoid celebrating on a day of fighting. Chanukah isn't about the war, it's about "now that we won, we can rededicate the beis hamiqdash". But there is also in that blog post a small treatment of why two explanations for Pesach's half-Hallel. Commented Dec 24, 2019 at 17:15
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    Why does frequency correlate with happiness? I don't understand. Pesach is one holiday and we say Hallel once. Same with Shavuot. Same with Shmini Atzeret. (On Sukkot, by rabbinic rule we nowadays take Lulav, which entails Hallel-waving, every day.) So what? Do you mean to ask why every day of Chanukkah needs its own Hallel, which is indeed unexpected and unlike biblical holidays? (I'd guess it's because, unlike biblical holidays, Hallel is the primary mitzva of Chanuka. We say thrice daily that they established these days for Hallel. Candle lighting is a bonus.)
    – Double AA
    Commented Dec 24, 2019 at 17:23
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    sefaria.org.il/Megillah.14a.5?lang=bi
    – Joel K
    Commented Dec 24, 2019 at 17:48
  • I don't see where I make any reference to frequency. I mention metrics like death of the enemy, derabonnon vs. de'oraita and the presence of a musaf (and by tangential reference, the uniqueness of a particular musaf). If, as the other answer indicates, we reduce to half-hallel (where it is required biblically) in commemoration of enemy deaths, or because the nature of musaf changes each, why would Channukah be rabbinically meriting a full Hallel. If someone can show me where my question revolves around frequency, I would appreciate it so I can edit it. Just downvoting doesn't help me improve.
    – rosends
    Commented Dec 25, 2019 at 12:42
  • @rosends The premise is that Pesach has a lower Hallel-frequency than Chanukkah does. (I don't understand what you mean by "we reduce to half-hallel (where it is required biblically)" since half-hallel is never required bibilically [or rabbinically for that matter; it's a custom])
    – Double AA
    Commented Dec 25, 2019 at 14:09

2 Answers 2

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The Pesach night was followed by a difficult journey which caused many complaints. To rectify that we sing Dayenu during the Pesach seder, which indeed follows by a full Hallel. The Chanukkah celebration also followed by a difficult military war for the next 25 years, however Jewish people not only did not complain, but thanked Hashem for the miracle of oil.

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As explained in a shiur that I attended today, each day of Chanukah is a separate mitzvah. The days of Pesach are considered one mitzvah, while each day of Succos is also a separate mitzvah as we see by the difference korbanos each day.

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  • What does it mean to each be a separate mitzva (besides for Hallel)?
    – Double AA
    Commented Dec 25, 2019 at 0:29
  • On Succos there are different korbanos each day. Also the difference is that Pesach is treated as one mitzvah for the entire seven days. On Chanukah each day is a separate mitzvah to light candles. If one cannot light a candle on one day (say in the middle of a trip) one lights on the other days individually. Commented Dec 25, 2019 at 0:38
  • If one must own chametz for the first 3 days (say a nonjew has a gun to your head) he still has to get rid of it the next day. Nothing you said helped clarify anything.
    – Double AA
    Commented Dec 25, 2019 at 0:39
  • @DoubleAA The way it was explained to me is that it is still a single mitzvah to get rid of Chametz over the entire Pesach. However, it is a different mitzvah each night to light candles. It is not a single mitzvah to light candles over the entire Chanukah. It is like the mitzvah to clean, fill, and relight the menorah each day. Commented Dec 25, 2019 at 0:44
  • You still aren't explaining what's the difference if something is a single mitzva or multiple mitzvot? This sounds like a meaningless word game. If the only difference is Hallel then you haven't explained anything, just couched the same point in different words. In the Sefer haChinukh for instance, Pesach and Sukkot are both 1 each. For what definition of "mitzva count" is your claim relevant?
    – Double AA
    Commented Dec 25, 2019 at 0:46

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