Yaakov said (Gen 33.11):
... כִּי־חַנַּנִי אֱלֹהִים וְכִי יֶשׁ־לִי־כֹל ...׃
... for God has favored me and I have everything...
יש לי כל: כָּל סִפּוּקִי; וְעֵשָׂו דִּבֵּר בִּלְשׁוֹן גַּאֲוָה יֶשׁ לִי רָב, יוֹתֵר וְיוֹתֵר מִכְּדֵי צָרְכִּי:
I HAVE EVERYTHING — all that will supply my needs. But Esau spoke proudly (v. 8): I have (רב) abundance — far more than my needs.
Yaakov claims that he has everything he needs, but in fact, we see that he has way over his physiological needs - so he boasts to Eisov in ver 32.6:
וַיְהִי־לִי שׁוֹר וַחֲמוֹר צֹאן וְעֶבֶד וְשִׁפְחָה וָאֶשְׁלְחָה לְהַגִּיד לַאדֹנִי לִמְצֹא־חֵן בְּעֵינֶיךָ׃
I have acquired cattle, asses, sheep, and male and female slaves; and I send this message to my lord in the hope of gaining your favor.’”
While to some, capitalists, this question might sound strange, after all, we strive to maximize our holding relying on the belief that this is the true expression of G-d's love and affirmation to our deeds (based on what the Torah says "and G-d blessed Avraham with everything", namely he was crazy rich), but I do believe everything G-d does is on purpose and I seek this mysterious purpose in the fact that the forefathers were loaded way over their (physical) needs.
I couldn't find where this wealth was truly useful or used to do Mitzvos or let them study the Torah peacefully (i.g. the tribes went 100 miles to graze sheep in Shechem instead of learning Torah in "tents of Shem and Ever").
What is the reason the forefathers were granted with far more wealth they physically needed?