1

The Taz in siman 671:1 writes concerning how many menorahs to light in one's household, the Sefardim who light only one act in accordance with Tosafos and the Ashkenazim who light one for each family member act in accordance with the Rambam. The Taz calls this a novelty and ends off saying "this is something we don't find anywhere else"

ובכאן יש חידוש במנהג שהספרדים נוהגין כתוס' כמ"ש [ב"י] והאשכנזים כרמב"ם וזה לא מצינו בשאר מקומות:

Whether or not the Ashkenazim are actually only acting in accordance with Rambam or not, (see Mishbitzos Zahav who suggests since we light inside in separate places, we are acting in accordance with Tosafos as well), I am curious if there actually are any places where this flip has occurred.

Do we have any instances where Sefardim are obviously ruling in accordance with Tosafos while Ashkenazim rule obviously only according to Rambam?

Although there are other prominent Sefardi and Ashkenazi sources we can ask this type of question about, I'm limiting it to these two both to keep the question manageable and also because that is how the Taz started this whole idea.

|improve this question
  • 2
    (not just the MZ's point, but also it doesn't seem the Rambam has each person light candles like the common Ashkenazi practice.) – Double AA♦ Dec 9 '19 at 2:05
  • True. Where that minhag came from is a different issue. But having multiple menorahs in one place needs to rely on Rambam. Assuming Rambam meant they were all together. – user6591 Dec 9 '19 at 2:15
  • Rambam probably held to wear tefillin on chol hamoed (although Kesef Mishneh does not read him that way). At least some of the Ba'alei Tosafot are quoted as forbidding wearing tefillin on chol hamoed. Sefardic practice is not to wear them on chol hamoed; (tradtional) Ashkenazic practice is to wear them. – Joel K Dec 9 '19 at 10:07
  • @JoelK, sounds like an answer. Might I suggest you post it as such? – msh210♦ Dec 9 '19 at 15:22
  • @msh210 I'm hesitant to do so as the OP asked for instances where "Sefardim are obviously ruling in accordance with Tosafos" which I'm not sure is the case here, as only some (possibly a minority of) Tosafists held this view; and where "Ashkenazim rule obviously only according to Rambam" which again is not clear-cut - Kesef Mishneh reads Rambam as forbidding tefillin on chol hamoed. – Joel K Dec 9 '19 at 15:30

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .