I've been reading the Divine Code by Rabbi Moshe Weiner and came across this in Part I 5:2 note. 91
"...(1) It is also prohibited for a Jew to teach Torah to gentiles in the canonised Hebrew or Aramaic text. (next page)..(2) We can add that after the Torah was translated into Greek as the Septuagint, it is permitted to learn Torah in one's own language from a proper translation..."
If it is prohibited for a Jew to teach to a gentile Torah in Hebrew or Aramaic then is it prohibited for a gentile to learn either language?
The source given for (1) is Talmud - Hagigah 13a
"... And Rabbi Ami said further: The words of the Torah may not be transmitted to a gentile..."
Does "The words of the Torah" mean the precise Hebrew letters and their order?
One of the sources given for (2) is Sanhedrin 59a which references Deuteronomy 33:4. Does that imply that the holy language was an inheritance to the congregation of Jacob along with the Torah? And so is it considered Theft or Adultery to learn Biblical Hebrew? Is reading in Biblical Hebrew considered a level of learning Torah that is prohibited to gentiles?
Thank you for reading my question.