As we know, all our foremothers came from homes of [famous] idolaters - Betuel and Lavan (well, Sarah also).

Once Avraham started the dynasty with Itzhak it seems reasonable that all newcomers will pass some [even short] ceremony of declaring their adherence to monotheism and observing its Mitzvos. In fact, we see that no such ceremony for Rivka, Rachel or Leah or else.

If they didn't, how could our forefathers marry them and what makes their children Jewish? If they did, why does Torah omit such an important detail?

  • Why would there be a concept of conversion before the Torah was given?
    – Loewian
    Nov 25, 2019 at 3:50

1 Answer 1


According to this answer here, it is "implied by all interpreters" that the foremothers did indeed convert1 prior to marrying the forefathers. As this is something that all the interpreters were able to learn out (presumably either via tradition or some other method), it seems like there is no need for the Torah to explicitly write it out.

  1. Note that no sources are given in that other answer regarding who the interpreters are or where this is learnt out. Please make a comment on that answer if you'd like sources from that OP.
  • 3
    Great sorce, @Salmonius! Nov 24, 2019 at 22:37
  • This is a personal attack, not an answer
    – b a
    Nov 25, 2019 at 11:48

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