In regards to this question of mine I would like to ask:

In Genesis/Bereshit 18:10 it seems that one of the men/angels visiting Avraham is saying that Sarah will give birth to a son, while in Genesis 18:14 it’s G-d speaking. At least that’s how some like Rashi or the Rashbam seem to explain it:

But why would G-d speak through one of the messengers/angels in one case, but personally in another, while speaking about the exact same matter? If these angels are speaking and acting through the agency of G-d (like a shaliach), why couldn’t they speak out those words on behalf of G-d the second time as well? I’m not doubting what Rashi and the Rashbam say about these verses, I’m just trying to figure out why this would be the case (why G-d Himself speaks directly the second time around in opposite to the first time this message is delivered).

If someone could help explain the logic behind it, that would be great.

  • @msh210 It’s a answer, but I’m not sure what to think of it: from verse 1 it seems that HaShem was already with Avraham, although that could be just an introduction to what’s described next; which in such a case would place the appearance of HaShem in verse 13 or 17. Might be worth to place this as a answer with a little bit more explanation.
    – Levi
    Nov 21 '19 at 17:36

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