Shabbos 67b says "Gad" (גד) was the name of an Amorite idol, and we shouldn't use it. Shouldn't this apply to the name "God" as well?
eg. "God forbid"
There is no continuity between the English word God and the Amorite deity, they simply are not related words even if they are specifically similar in meaning and pronunciation. To suggest that a word can be problematic because of an unrelated homonym in a foreign language a continent apart could have far reaching implications.
The verse quoted by the g'mara there vowelizes the name as גַּד, with a patach. I don't know about you, but I don't pronounce that the same as God. (The patach is central or maybe even front, while the o is back.) While I can't guarantee that that makes it okay (and, as always, CYLOR for practical halacha), it conceivably may. (That's besides issues of intent and of bitul.)
Presumably, there is an amount of kavana (intention) and context involved.
For example, if language X has the following words in its lexicon:
Then if one were speaking hebrew, they would still be able to use the hebrew word pronounced Ah-Doh-Nai, despite the fact that another language uses it to refer to an idol.
Similarly, Jews living in the society of the language X speakers, when referring to God, could use the word Bah-Ahl, assuming they intended the meaning in language X and not that in Hebrew (I would guess, however, that the cognitive dissonance of using Bah-Ahl to refer to God would be too much and the Jews living in that society would come up with another language X word to refer to God)
As it relates to your example, a speaker of language X:
[Note: this is my own pondering. I have no source.]