Does one need to inform someone that the food they are about to eat is permissible b'deved(after the fact)?

Example 1: Some milk fell into the chulent and the Rabbi employed batel b'shishim and now the chulent is mutar b'deved.

Example 2: If a caterer was preparing food for a wedding and there was a mess up ,and he asked a Rabbi who permitted the food because it is a case of hefsed m'rubah(great loss) and now the food is allowed b'deved.

In these cases does the baal habais have to inform his guest(s) that the food is in a b'deved state?

  • 1
    re case 1, i believe the Maharshal maintains that not relying on bitul qualifies as quasi-heretical (daas minus). – Loewian Oct 28 '19 at 14:37
  • Doesn't it come down to "who's the Rabbi"? Because not all people keep the same strictness, for some the food is allowed and for some that might be a real Issur. – Al Berko Oct 28 '19 at 14:42
  • Why do you insist that the food is only permissible b'deved (or B'Di'eved)? It's perfectly Kosher food. – Danny Schoemann Oct 28 '19 at 14:55

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .