Rashi in his commentary on Bereishis 2:3 explains that the beracha of shabbos is in the future when the mannah fell during the week and an extra portion fell on Friday and kedusha is also in the future when the mannah did not fall on shabbos.

Why is shabbos described with two words that only represent an episode that lasted only forty years in our thirty five hundred year history?

  • "In the future when the manna fell?" You've got some elements of a good question here but I can't understand what you're asking
    – Josh K
    Oct 24 '19 at 17:41
  • Welcome to Mi Yodeya! Please take a look at our tour for some useful information about the site. I’ve edited your question to give a more specific source in Rashi, fixed your tags, and rephrased your main question to make it stronger; if you disagree with any of these edits you’re always welcome to edit your post further. Thank you for this question and looking forward to learning with you!
    – DonielF
    Oct 24 '19 at 18:21
  • FWIW this is exactly Ramban’s problem with this understanding of the passuk. He doesn’t defend Rashi, though; he just poses his own interpretation. Ohr HaChaim similarly quotes this understanding and handwaves it as a “remez,” not the real explanation of the passuk, which Rashi clearly disagrees with.
    – DonielF
    Oct 24 '19 at 18:23

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