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In Shemot/Exodus 19:16 the word ‘shofar’ is written without a vav (שפר). I would like to know if there are any explanations/commentaries as to why it is missing.

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    Although it's more common with the full spelling, there are other examples with the short one. Do you have any reason to think that this particular verse is special? mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt0220.htm#14 – Kazi bácsi Oct 1 at 19:34
  • @Kazibácsi Yes it might be, because I once came across a verse in which sukot was written without the vav and studied other cases in which some rabbi's concluded that it expressed oneness. (i.e. the cry of Yoseph and his brothers was heared in whole egypt, the cry missing a vav, is such a case). – Levi Oct 2 at 21:05

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