Exodus 2:10 says: "And the child grew, and she brought him unto Pharaoh’s daughter, and he became her son. And she called his name Moses, and said: ‘Because I drew him out of the water.’" Is the text implying that Pharaoh's daughter spoke Hebrew or did she use the Egyptian equivalent of one drawn out and the text is just translating what she said in Egyptian into Hebrew for a Hebrew audience?
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Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/89130/… judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/79307/…– AlexSep 23, 2019 at 0:45
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judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/98033/…– rosendsSep 23, 2019 at 0:46
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Is judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/89130/… your question?– msh210 ♦Sep 23, 2019 at 3:49
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@msh looks like a dupe to me– רבות מחשבותSep 23, 2019 at 13:54
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Many pharaonic names contain the ancient Egyptian particle mose, meaning born, which Biblical Judaism then proceeded to reinterpret in a manner befitting classical Hebrew.– user18041Sep 24, 2019 at 5:18
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