If a Jewish man without children lives in a place where there are no other Jews and does not have the resources to leave that place and move, then is he permitted to fulfill the Torah commandment to be “fruitful and multiply” with a Gentile? If we hold that the prohibition of having intercourse with a non-Jew is Rabbinic in nature (and I know this is debated), then is there a rationale for why the Torah commandment would not override.

  • If someone wants to provide a helpful comment to improve the question that would be great. Otherwise just downvoting it because you feel like it is, IMO, very unproductive and akin to sinat chinam. I’d appreciate feedback. My motivation in asking is theoretical for my own learning. – Akiva___ Aug 28 '19 at 16:29
  • 1
    Do non Jewish children even count for him? – Double AA Aug 28 '19 at 16:33
  • That’s relevant I suppose. The sages debated about whether non-Jewish children count for a convert if they were born prior to his conversion. – Akiva___ Aug 28 '19 at 16:34
  • 2
    It’s a hypothetical that I asked to help better my understanding of when rabbinic prohibitions can override Torah commandments and just from my curiosity as i am not very learned in this area — so it’s my curiosity regarding differences when transgression of Torah law comes about only passively – such as not blowing the shofar when Rosh HaShana falls out on Shabbat, versus overriding Torah law even if it leads to active transgression. – Akiva___ Aug 28 '19 at 17:53
  • 1
    I suppose this question would be relevant for a poor Jew living and descended from one of the Jews who remained in Afghanistan where there is no one there to help him out.. and everyone else died or left for israel – Akiva___ Aug 28 '19 at 17:54

Browse other questions tagged .