2

Is practicing laining for a Parsha considered Talmud Torah?

Namely, does this "count" as Torah learning, would one get s'char for this etc OR could it be considered more like memorizing a song?

Sources welcome- thanks!

| improve this question | |
  • 2
    FWIW, I asked my LOR about whether I could practice laining on Tishah B'Av, and was told that I shouldn't since it was considered learning Torah on Tishah B'Av – Salmononius2 Aug 27 '19 at 1:52
  • 1
    judaism.stackexchange.com/a/99842/13438 – Alex Aug 27 '19 at 2:00
  • Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/27898/… – Alex Aug 27 '19 at 2:17
  • @Alex not necessarily that a person doesn't understand- rather is studying to memorize the tune (and maybe not considered "learning" since it's not really his intention/ he's just doing it to memorize the tune) – alicht Aug 27 '19 at 2:19
  • 2
    Why focus on studying? Ask more generally: does Leining in Shul count as Talmud Torah or is it considered more like singing a song? – Double AA♦ Aug 27 '19 at 2:24
4

The Shulchan Aruch HaRav Talmud Torah 2/12-13 writes that there is a difference between the 24 seforim of the written Torah, where saying the words is a mitzvah even if you don't understand the meaning of those words. While the oral Torah is a mitzvah only when you understand it.

אך אם מוציא בשפתיו אע"פ שאינו מבין אפי' פירוש המילות מפני שהוא עם הארץ הרי זה מקיים מצות ולמדתם. ולפיכך כל עם הארץ מברך ברכת התורה בשחר לפני הפסוקים וכן כשעולה לספר תורה:

במה דברים אמורים בתורה שבכתב, אבל בתורה שבעל פה אם אינו מבין הפירוש אינו נחשב לימוד כלל

Based on that, each word you read when practicing laining a parsha would be a mitzvah.

| improve this answer | |
  • 1
    Thanks! But what's to say one doesn't understand it? Rather that one is just learning the accompanying tune to chant the Torah portion- not the words themselves – alicht Aug 27 '19 at 5:20
  • I downvoted because he contradicts the Talmud. – Dr. Shmuel Aug 27 '19 at 12:21
  • 2
    @Dr.Shmuel how? – larry909 Aug 29 '19 at 10:52
  • But in the case you quote from shulchan aruch, the difference is in the intent, whereby in the example given the person's intent is for learning as opposed to the OP's question where his intent is not for learning. – larry909 Aug 29 '19 at 10:53

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .