The snake was able to speak from its creation (Likutei Sichos (10) p. 13) so why is man singled out as being capable of speech (דעה ודבור acc. to Rashi) if the snake already had it?
asked Aug 12, 2019 at 14:55
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hakirah.org/Vol%205%20Krakowski.pdf– LoewianAug 12, 2019 at 15:11
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related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/57525/… and judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/9243/…– LoewianAug 12, 2019 at 15:17
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