Kesubos 6:1 says:
מְצִיאַת הָאִשָּׁה וּמַעֲשֵׂה יָדֶיהָ, לְבַעְלָהּ. וִירֻשָּׁתָהּ, הוּא אוֹכֵל פֵּרוֹת בְּחַיֶּיהָ. בָּשְׁתָּהּ וּפְגָמָהּ, שֶׁלָּהּ. רַבִּי יְהוּדָה בֶן בְּתֵירָא אוֹמֵר, בִּזְמַן שֶׁבַּסֵּתֶר, לָהּ שְׁנֵי חֲלָקִים, וְלוֹ אֶחָד. וּבִזְמַן שֶׁבַּגָּלוּי, לוֹ שְׁנֵי חֲלָקִים, וְלָהּ אֶחָד. שֶׁלּוֹ, יִנָּתֵן מִיָּד. וְשֶׁלָּהּ, יִלָּקַח בָּהֶן קַרְקַע, וְהוּא אוֹכֵל פֵּרוֹת:
What a woman finds or produces belongs to her husband. What she inherits, he benefits from it during her life. The payment for her embarrassment or damage goes to her. Rabbi Yehuda ben Beseira says, if she was damaged or embarrassed in private, she gets 2/3 and he gets 1/3; in public, he gets 2/3 and she gets 1/3. He gets his part right away. Her part goes to buy land, and he gets to benefit from it.
The Shulchan Aruch follows R' Yehuda ben Beseira and says that the payment gets split in this way.
I'm having trouble understanding why the payment for embarrassment gets split. The Gemara has a short piece about why embarrassing a man's wife is like embarrassing the man himself, and I can understand why he gets paid. I would have thought though that his payment would be in addition to hers. Why does that come out of her payment? Is she somehow less embarrassed because he's around?