I'm an Italian Noahide.
The topic in question manifests my purely intellectual interest, concerning the Jews and not the Gentiles.
We read in Talmud Bavli-Sanhredrin 76a (English translation from “The William Davidson Talmud”):
Rabbi Ya’akov, brother of Rav Aḥa bar Ya’akov (…):Is taught in a baraita: With regard to the verse (Leviticus 19:29): “Do not profane your daughter by causing her to act licentiously(lehaznotah),” one might have thought that it is with regard to a priest who marries his daughter to a Levite or Israelite that the verse is speaking, since marrying an Israelite disqualifies her from partaking of teruma. To counter this, the verse states “by causing her to act licentiously,”indicating that it is with regard to profaning that involves licentiousness that the verse is speaking. The reference is to one who gives his daughter to a man for the purpose of intercourse that is not for the sake of marriage.”
If the English translation is accurate (I am unable to consult the original text) it would seem, if I am not mistaken, that the expression in this baraita "intercourse that is not for the sake of marriage" refers to any intercourse consumed outside the marriage relationship.
I would like to know if there are more limited interpretations in the Jewish tradition about such specific expression, referring only to the hypothesis of casual/promiscuous sex (paid or not), or sexual intercourse consumed between an unmarried woman and a man she can’t halachically marry (therefore with reference to a woman "zonah" in the strictly legal sense, also considering that " lehaznotah " has the same linguistic root, if I am not mistaken, of "zonah").