As a follow-up to "was-bilam-evil":
Plain reading of the Torah text makes an impression that Bilam intended and did everything G-d asked him and only that. Hence the original question.
IIRC, the Halachah obligates us not to speak favorably about the wicked and all the interpreters follow that Halachah - every possible verse is interpreted in Bilam's (lavan, Pharao etc) disgrace.
It seems traditionally illogical that Torah was censored or altered.
Why the Torah does not follow this principle and does not speak unfavorably about Bilam (at least in this Parsha) but instead speaks very favorably?