As a follow-up to "was-bilam-evil":

Plain reading of the Torah text makes an impression that Bilam intended and did everything G-d asked him and only that. Hence the original question.

IIRC, the Halachah obligates us not to speak favorably about the wicked and all the interpreters follow that Halachah - every possible verse is interpreted in Bilam's (lavan, Pharao etc) disgrace.

It seems traditionally illogical that Torah was censored or altered.

Why the Torah does not follow this principle and does not speak unfavorably about Bilam (at least in this Parsha) but instead speaks very favorably?

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    Please clarify your question. Your question in the title (why was he portrayed positively) is almost the opposite of the question in the body (why wasn't he portrayed negatively). The answer to the former is he wasn't, and the answer to the latter is he was. – Salmononius2 Jul 14 '19 at 13:45
  • @Salmononius2 Edited. – Al Berko Jul 14 '19 at 15:55
  • maybe it could be something to do with Rus? – Russell Jun 29 '20 at 21:25

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