16

On Shabbat, we're supposed to begin the meals with two whole loaves - "Lechem Mishneh." According to Shmirat Shabbat KeHilchato as quoted in the article linked above, "If two loaves bake together in an oven and become attached, they may be broken apart and still count as two loaves."

I rely on this ruling routinely when using bakery-made challah rolls. They tend to come in groups of six, arrayed like a six-pack of soda, and attached due to baking next to each other. We separate them and use them as loaves.

Given this ruling, what is the status of the individual balls in a pull-apart challah? Can they be broken out and each serve as their own loaf? If one is broken off, can what's left be used as a loaf?

Improve this question
2

5 Answers 5

Reset to default
5

Although I don't have any halachic basis for this answer, it would appear to me that intent would matter. The intent at the time in baking the rolls are that they are 6 seperate rolls. I believe the intent at baking a "pull-apart" Challah is that it is one challah.

Improve this answer
5
  • Surely there are relevant mishnayos in Maseches Chala, where it talks all about large loaves of dough sticking together to be considered a single "batch" or "'isa".
    – WAF
    Apr 19, 2010 at 4:05
  • On the other hand, you could argue the opposite about the original intent: why would they make them in that way, if not so that the individual pieces can serve as separate challos? Especially the ones that are made out of 12 sections, which is presumably in keeping with the custom that Bas613 mentioned.
    – Alex
    Apr 19, 2010 at 17:41
  • I agree with @Alex. I'm pretty sure that the intention for those pull-apart challahs is for them to be separate. That's why people buy them...
    – Daniel
    Apr 11, 2013 at 18:47
  • 1
    I bake pull apart challahs, as do many of my friends. I like the shape and it's easy to divide out individual portions. But it's meant to be a challah with six segments - like a six braid challah - not a bunch of rolls.
    – sq33G
    Jan 26, 2015 at 23:18
  • @Daniel if the intention was to be separate they'd sell it as rolls.
    – Double AA ♦
    Nov 29, 2019 at 15:07
5

I'm told someone asked this to Rabbi Moshe Heinemann, who asked to see the pullapart in question -- and then ruled the individual pieces could not be used.

Improve this answer
3
  • Sorry you'll have to take my word for it, or go at the research from other angles. I literally heard it from someone I'd consider to be reliable.
    – Shalom
    Feb 14, 2012 at 2:34
  • 1
    +1 If you consider it reliable, then I'll take it at your word. :-)
    – HodofHod
    Feb 14, 2012 at 2:36
  • @Shalom I heard the same halacha attributed to Rav Heinemann, though other poskim in Baltimore allow the challos which are attached to be used for lechem mishna. Similarly, Ner Yisroel in Baltimore provides those types of challos for the bochurim on shabbos for lechem mishna.
    – NJM
    Jun 7, 2020 at 15:20
3

The STAR-K quotes the opinion of Rav Heinemann saying,

If one baked rolls with the intent that they initially remain attached (including for packaging purposes), and are then broken apart, one should preferably not use them for lechem mishneh.

In footnote 38, the STAR-K says to also see Teshuvos Sho’el U’mayshiv (1:167) as brought in Daas Torah (274:1), who is lenient if the intent of the baker or baal habayis is to separate them. When nothing else is readily available, one may rely on these lenient opinions.

According to the latter opinions, it would depend on what the baker had in mind when creating the pull apart challah. If it's baked into one challah to make it easier to pull apart portions for each individual, it would seem to be one challah. If it was designed to be taken apart and used as six rolls, then some would consider it separate challos.

Improve this answer
2

The Netziv in Shut Meishiv Davar (no. 21) allowed people to use 2 slices of bread as lechem mishne, why would this be different?

See here for a discussion of this.

Improve this answer
3
  • 4
    where is this recordered?
    – Gershon Gold
    Jan 16, 2014 at 18:04
  • According to that opinion it probably isn't. But according to the opinion in Shmiras Shabbos KeHilchosa, it may be that both don't count.
    – Yishai
    Jan 16, 2014 at 20:02
  • 1
    Welcome shloma edelstein; I've heard that Netziv as well. I think the question was from the perspective of those who try to use conventionally-whole loaves.
    – Shalom
    Jan 16, 2014 at 21:14
0

I think I remember reading from HaRav Ovadia Yosef Shelit"a (in Hazon Ovadia vol. 2) that they are okay. (BN BH I'll be back)

Improve this answer
1

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .