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In Parshas Korach (Bamidbar 16:15), the Torah says ויחר למשה מאוד. Rashi translates it as Moshe was distresed a lot. Rashi doesnt say Moshe was very angry.

Why doesnt Rashi translate it the way the verse wrote it? What did Rashi gain by saying Moshe was distressed a lot instead of very angry? If Rashi feels the verse means Moshe was very distressed why didnt the verse use a different word instead of ויחר?

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    Why do you assume that vayechar means "got angry"? Its first use (Bereishit 4:5) means "distressed" also. Maybe without "af" it doesn't mean angry.
    – rosends
    Jul 8 '19 at 2:27
  • Well answered. However why in Parshas Korach does Rashi wait to translate Vayichar Limoshe as Moshe got distressed a lot, it should have translated Vayichar Likyain Miod in Breishes in that Passuk as Kayin got distressed a lot?
    – pine5900
    Jul 8 '19 at 13:16
  • Maybe he was acknowledging the hava amina that in this case (but not by Kayin) one might have thought it meant anger.
    – rosends
    Jul 8 '19 at 15:07

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