How could Boaz be required to do Yibbum with Ruth being that she was a non jew when she was married to?

  • 1
    How do you know he was obligated? Ho do you know she was a gentile when married to Machlon?
    – Double AA
    Jun 23 '19 at 11:11
  • 4
    Note it couldn't be proper yibum as Boaz isn't a brother.
    – user15253
    Jun 23 '19 at 12:23
  • 1
    Could it be you are confusing yibum with the ceremony described in Ruth 4:7 - which I don't understand as yibum but rather as a tradition that, when buying a piece of land one also has to acquire the deceased's wife. Yibum is valid even when not acquiring a piece of land
    – mbloch
    Jun 23 '19 at 15:04
  • Where does it say that he did Yibum? Jun 24 '19 at 14:12
  • related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/110090/170
    – msh210
    Dec 3 '19 at 12:59

Since all of Naomi's children had died, Ruth was free of the requirement of yibum and did not perform yibum with Boaz. Indeed, one of the reasons Naomi gave trying to convince Ruth and Orpah to leave her was that there would be no child available to perform yibum. Ruth 1:12 - 13

  1. Return, my daughters, go, for I have become too old to marry, that I should say that I have hope. Even if I had a husband tonight, and even if I had borne sons,

  2. Would you wait for them until they grew up? Would you shut yourselves off for them and not marry? No, my daughters, for it is much more bitter for me than for you, for the hand of the Lord has gone forth against me."

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