It is written in Shabbos 83a in the Steinsaltz edition of the Talmud that gentiles are designated the status of zav. The commentary explains that the reason is “So that a Jewish child will not grow accustomed to engage in sodomy with a gentile child.” Why is the text written as accustomed to rather than does not? It makes it seem like this kind of behavior is common and Jewish children should simply not grow accustomed to it.

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  • Because intermarriage are a consequence of friendship – kouty Jun 11 '19 at 14:25
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    Where in their edition of Shabbos is this? I’m having trouble finding it. Are you sure it’s on 83a? – DonielF Jun 11 '19 at 14:39

He is translating the reason given (by Rashi in Nida 34a) and other locations.

In the original:

משום שלא יהא תינוק ישראל רגיל אצלו במשכב זכור:‏

Lit: “So that a Jewish child will not grow accustomed to being with him and engage in sodomy.”

I think the original means - based on the order of the words:

“So that a Jewish child will not grow accustomed to (hang around/play/socialize) with a gentile child and (eventually become friendly enough to be asked to) engage in sodomy.”

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