not really related to: "Why in olden days was there a long break between Kiddushin & Nisuin?"

In the times of the Talmud (Ketubot 57a) there was usually a significant amount of time between kiddushin/erusin (betrothal) and nisuin (marriage).

However ever since the Middle Ages (source) the practice has been to do the kiddushin and nisuin one after the other under the chuppah.

When did this practice of doing Kiddushin followed immediately by Nisuin begin?
Do we have any teshuvos or documentation from the Rishonim as to when exactly and why this practice began?

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    Is there any reason to think this was a specific change at a specific point in time and not just something that was always possible becoming more common over time? You're asking for something precise when it might not exist. – Double AA Jun 5 '19 at 15:28
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    Probably when people became poorer. Although, considering what many are spending on weddings, vorts, Lechaim's and showers now, that reasoning doesn't work. – DanF Jun 5 '19 at 15:40
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    @DoubleAA you're right- I assume that little by little it was whittled away until eventually done away with. The exact moment of change may not exist, but anything close/ acknowledging that it was not as common as once was would be also great – alicht Jun 5 '19 at 15:42
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    related judaism.stackexchange.com/q/56844/5120 – hazoriz Jun 5 '19 at 17:09
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    @DanF, indeed, in Mishpat HaKetubah, that's one of the first reasons he brings, that Rashi was machrim that they should be done back to back to save money – MDjava Jun 6 '19 at 1:12

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