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Bamidbar 9:11 tells us that Pesach sheni happens a month after Pesach rishon.

Pesach sheni was for the unclean or people on a long journey, who couldn't bring Pesach at its appointed time. Did they really need 30 days to make it up?

Why did Hashem pick that day as Pesach sheni and not another day?

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    Someone with tzra’as can be tamei for a couple weeks in a row. Factor in the walk to Jerusalem and 30 days doesn’t sound like so much.
    – Lo ani
    May 19, 2019 at 4:40
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    @Loani alternatively a niddah is probably going to be niddah again 30 days later
    – Double AA ♦
    May 19, 2019 at 17:02
  • @Double AA I guess it all depends what tuma the original tamei people had.
    – Lo ani
    May 19, 2019 at 20:59
  • What's the longest time for people to be Tamei?
    – Eli83
    May 21, 2019 at 11:08
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    Does this answer your question? Why didn't women complain about not being able to bring the Pesach?
    – user15464
    Jun 15, 2020 at 15:34

1 Answer 1

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It seems quite logical to me:

  • This places it at the same "full moon" time of the month as Pesach, Sukkos and Tu B'Shevat. For whatever reasons, that seems to be prime Yom Tov time.
  • It allows time to become Tahor via Parah Adumah, plus time for traveling. Realistically, that would mean allowing at least two weeks.
  • It avoids problems (inside Israel) of figuring out the date of Rosh Chodesh, which would be a problem if it were set for an early day in a month).
  • Waiting until after Shavuos (e.g., 14 Sivan) would definitely not make sense as Shavuos is Atzeres of Pesach.

and of course having it exactly the same day (as opposed to 13 or 15 or 16 Iyar) makes it easy to remember. At least as long as you understand that the date is based on bringing the Korban - and that Erev Pesach is a Yom Tov of sorts as well (just usually quite hectic due to the Pesach preparations and no obvious "no Tachanun" like Pesach Sheni has).

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