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An Ashkenazi son (his father was a Yekke) who mourns after his Sefardi mother - does he follow Ashkenazi Minhagim of Avelut (Kaddish for 11 months exactly for example) of Sefardi?

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    Why wouldnt he follow his minhag? – chortkov2 May 18 '19 at 20:14
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Yes.

Aveilus obligates the mourner, not the deceased. The nature of the deceased is irrelevant; the mourner would follow his mesorah on any differences between Sephardic or Ashkenazic customs.

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  • בשם הר״ן: אל תטוש תורת אמך. היינו הולך אחר מנהגך. – Yaacov Deane May 19 '19 at 5:05
  • THis is a good Svarah, but why not the opposite? The deceased need Kaddishim acc. to his Minhag - seems equally plausible to me. – Al Berko May 19 '19 at 6:15

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