Can a long path of the Orthodox conversion be circumvented by the following procedure*?
Enslaving a Gentile person by buying from him/herself
Dipping him/her in a Mikve before a Beis Din for the purpose of Slavery (circumcizing a male of course)
Using him/her a bit
*seemingly (acc to Shu"A Yo"D) the Slavery is not fully abolished nowadays
NB: This question was asked originally by @Clint here 5 years ago, but was closed as it included another question.