The mishna in Sotah 3:8 says, in a list of differences in halacha between men and women:
A man is sold for his theft [i.e., to repay it], a woman is not sold for her theft. (Sefaria translation)
The clarification that the sale is for repayment comes from the g'mara, which doesn't elaborate further. A thief is required to compensate the victim; a man who cannot do so is sold but a woman can't be sold -- so how is the victim of a female thief compensated?
Does the obligation to pay damages fall on her husband (if married) or father (if not)? That would only work if she isn't a widow, divorced, or an orphan. How does the victim of a poor female thief get compensated -- or doesn't he?