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It's a bit controversial that oats are considered chametz. While Rashi (Pesachim 35b, et. al.) translates Shiboles Shu'al as oats, not all Rishonim agree to this definition. For instance, the Rambam (commentary to Kilayim 1:1) holds that Shiboles Shu'al is desert barley.

  1. Are there any communities today which reject Rashi's translation in favor of the Rambam's (or some other Rishon I don't know about who doesn't like either of their translations), and thereby hold that bread containing oats is permissible on Pesach?
  2. If such a community does exist, and they hold that Kitniyos are forbidden on Pesach, do they consider oats to be Kitniyos and forbid them for that reason instead?
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    It's important as context to realize people didn't really eat oats in most places. maharitz.co.il/?CategoryID=277&ArticleID=1589 R Ratzabi writes that in Yemen they had wheat and barley and no tradition of what the others were (recall Chazal say the others are just types of wheat and barley). He says other communities have guesses but he thinks none of them have any firm Mesorah behind them. (It's not like any anyone was making bread or Matza with oats before the 20th century.) You can track a tradition of translation, but a firm tradition of positive practice is a hard ask. – Double AA Apr 2 at 22:02
  • @wfb I bet all those 15th century Scottish Jews had a real solid Mesorah about this newly popular food. (Did any Jews live in Scotland? Edit: accd Wikipedia the first recorded Jew in Scotland was in 1691) – Double AA Apr 3 at 13:51
  • @DoubleAA If they came from England, there would have been Jews there since c. 1066. Not that that particularly helps for the question at hand. – DonielF Apr 3 at 14:07
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    Even if fermented oats were used to feed animals that would prove that Jews did not consider it chametz. The point is that even if oat "bread" is a new invention, using oats as food/feed certainly isn't – wfb Apr 3 at 16:06

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