If a husband has some of his semen frozen/saved and then dies, what halachic and hashkafic issues have to be addressed when deciding if his widow is allowed to/can/should use that semen to become pregnant? Does anything change if the husband was a Cohen?
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1I know Rav Shlomo Zalman Auerbach addressed the halachic status of postmortem paternity. See these pdfs pdfs.semanticscholar.org/a410/… yutorah.org/download.cfm?materialID=532222 and mp3s: yutorah.org/lectures/lecture.cfm/913676/… yutorah.org/lectures/lecture.cfm/886901/rabbi-effie-kleinberg/… yutorah.org/lectures/lecture.cfm/838178/rabbi-dani-rapp/… – Shalom Mar 17 at 10:52
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1Terumah. Yibum. – Heshy Mar 17 at 11:20
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Highly related, if not a duplicate: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/27817 – DonielF Mar 17 at 14:50
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First thoughts: is artificially inseminated, halachically considered filiation (for the father)? – yO_ Mar 20 at 17:43
