If a husband has some of his semen frozen/saved and then dies, what halachic and hashkafic issues have to be addressed when deciding if his widow is allowed to/can/should use that semen to become pregnant? Does anything change if the husband was a Cohen?
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1I know Rav Shlomo Zalman Auerbach addressed the halachic status of postmortem paternity. See these pdfs pdfs.semanticscholar.org/a410/… yutorah.org/download.cfm?materialID=532222 and mp3s: yutorah.org/lectures/lecture.cfm/913676/… yutorah.org/lectures/lecture.cfm/886901/rabbi-effie-kleinberg/… yutorah.org/lectures/lecture.cfm/838178/rabbi-dani-rapp/…– ShalomMar 17, 2019 at 10:52
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1Terumah. Yibum.– HeshyMar 17, 2019 at 11:20
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Highly related, if not a duplicate: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/27817– DonielFMar 17, 2019 at 14:50
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First thoughts: is artificially inseminated, halachically considered filiation (for the father)?– yO_Mar 20, 2019 at 17:43
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@yO_ There is a Taz in Yoreh Deah (195:7) who says that if a woman sat down on a bed and became pregnant from someone's semen, the vlad is kasher because there's no bi'as isur. I recall hearing that one of the biggest poskim in E"Y now has used/uses this Taz to allow ivf in certain circumstances (but this should be taken with a grain of salt).– Shmuel KoppelOct 12, 2022 at 9:06
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