When we read Parshas Zachor shortly before Purim, we repeat a passage. According to the Mishneh Berurah 685, there is a dispute concerning the vowels that belong here.

One possibility would seem to be that this the only such dispute as to the vowels in the Torah.

Another would seem to be that there other comparable disputes, but we resovle them simply because no scriptural obligation is at stake, while because this reading is a scriptural obligation we resolve it stringently by reading according to both views.

If the latter -- that is, if there are other disputes -- do all Jews resolve them in the same way today? How did that happen? Where is all of this recorded?



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