Interestingly, in English and other languages, we treat "Adam" as the private name, not as a noun, but in the Torah it is a noun, for example (Ber 2.25):

וַיִּהְיוּ שְׁנֵיהֶם עֲרוּמִּים הָאָדָם וְאִשְׁתּוֹ וְלֹא יִתְבֹּשָׁשׁוּ׃

The two of them were naked, the man and his wife, yet they felt no shame.

So, did Adam have a private name at all?

Interestingly we saw the same difference in calling his wife's names: in the beginning, she was called "wife" as the Posuk says "ייקרא אישה" but later he calls he the name Chavah - "וַיִּקְרָא הָאָדָם שֵׁם אִשְׁתּוֹ חַוָּה" - specifically "שם". But Adam wasn't given a name.

  • Chazal refer to him as Adam HaRishon, which still just means “the first man.” I’d speculate based on that that he indeed did not have a personal name.
    – DonielF
    Mar 14 '19 at 0:51
  • 2
    Actually, she was originally called Adam also - Bereishis 5:2 זכר ונקבה בראם ויברך אתם ויקרא את שמם אדם ביום הבראם Mar 14 '19 at 3:44

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .