To keep a male slave after 7 years, we strike through his ear with a nail. But for a female slave, the text says (Devarim 15:17) וְאַ֥ף לַאֲמָתְךָ֖ תַּעֲשֶׂה־כֵּֽן׃

"and the nose, to your maidservant you should do thus"

Why would the instruction be to do thus to the nose of a woman, but the ear of a man?

As a secondary question -- I don't know if this should be separated -- do we make allowances for less efficient work by a male slave after seven years because he is attached to a wall, or is walking around with a piece of door post permanently affixed to his ear?

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closed as off-topic by msh210 Mar 23 at 22:42

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  • 2
    Clearly, while men heard Hashem say אנכי ה אלקיך at Har Sinai, women must have smelled Him say it. – DonielF Mar 7 at 16:46
  • @DonielF Seems plausible since we know that everybody also saw the sounds. – Daniel Mar 7 at 17:31
  • @Daniel But then why did the men specifically hear it while the women specifically smelled it? If everyone saw it, too, perhaps we should impale their eyes. – DonielF Mar 7 at 17:31

It’s a חוק; we do as God says, we don’t know the exact answer.

Ber. 3:1

וַיֹּ֙אמֶר֙ אֶל־הָ֣אִשָּׁ֔ה אַ֚ף כִּֽי־אָמַ֣ר אֱלֹהִ֔ים׃

[God] says To women: Nose, because God says so.

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