8

To keep a male slave after 7 years, we strike through his ear with a nail. But for a female slave, the text says (Devarim 15:17) וְאַ֥ף לַאֲמָתְךָ֖ תַּעֲשֶׂה־כֵּֽן׃

"and the nose, to your maidservant you should do thus"

Why would the instruction be to do thus to the nose of a woman, but the ear of a man?

As a secondary question -- I don't know if this should be separated -- do we make allowances for less efficient work by a male slave after seven years because he is attached to a wall, or is walking around with a piece of door post permanently affixed to his ear?


This question is Purim Torah and is not intended to be taken completely seriously. See the Purim Torah policy.

closed as off-topic by msh210 Mar 23 at 22:42

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  • 2
    Clearly, while men heard Hashem say אנכי ה אלקיך at Har Sinai, women must have smelled Him say it. – DonielF Mar 7 at 16:46
  • @DonielF Seems plausible since we know that everybody also saw the sounds. – Daniel Mar 7 at 17:31
  • @Daniel But then why did the men specifically hear it while the women specifically smelled it? If everyone saw it, too, perhaps we should impale their eyes. – DonielF Mar 7 at 17:31
6

It’s a חוק; we do as God says, we don’t know the exact answer.

Ber. 3:1

וַיֹּ֙אמֶר֙ אֶל־הָ֣אִשָּׁ֔ה אַ֚ף כִּֽי־אָמַ֣ר אֱלֹהִ֔ים׃

[God] says To women: Nose, because God says so.

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