Rape has nothing to do with it (a husband has obligations to his wife, that his wife can not rape him does not change anything, (if he was forced it is considered as though he did not fulfill his obligation (Bais Shmuel 77.4))
the answer: she should (willingly) attend to her husband for conjugal relations whenever he demands them from her (if she can) (she is not obligated to have pleasure from it, (lihavdil as Yael did not)).
but she can only be forced (pressured by the court) to attend to her husband for conjugal relations the same the number of times her husband is obligated in relations to her from the Torah). (since she can tell the court she goes according to the lenient opinion, and since it is they who are demanding the burden of proof is on them that the lenient (even minority) opinion (Maharit) is wrong.)
Sources:
let's start with the Neztiv, (the halacha might not be like him but, his opinion should be taken into consideration) regarding this (which is quoted in the Encyclopedia Talmudit under בַּעַל) his
Maishiv Davar, (part 4) Even Hoezer siman 35:
where he explains what ownership does he have in his wife, what does the below refer to:
the word Ba’al (husband) in the Torah (as in Devorim 24:4) has the meaning of master/owner and is similar to “‘owner’ of the ox” in Shemos 21:28
in Vayikra 22:11 the wife of a Kohen is referred to as one if "his acquisition of a person, an acquisition through his money" see rashi (ibid)
a wife is referred to as his slave/female-slave
he says that obviously the ownership is only in regards to conjugal relations and nothing else (as by a slave the ownership is only in regarding to the slaves work (of the slaves hands))
as can be seen from Shulchan Aruch Yoreh De’ah 234.67 or Rambam Nedarim 12:9 (english)
this ownership is seen clearly from the pasuk Devorim 24:1:
כִּֽי־יִקַּ֥ח אִ֛ישׁ אִשָּׁ֖ה וּבְעָלָ֑הּ
"when a man takes (acquires) a woman and has relations with her"
that he acquires her only in regards to relations and nothing else
then he brings a parallel to a slave that just as a slave can be forced to work, so to a wife can be forced to have relations and he will not have to pay for damages (as by an unmarried woman who was raped) (he does not claim that it is allowed to rape your wife his claim seems to only be, that financially you did not do any damage to her, since this 'part' (aspect) of her belongs to you)
[it is immoral to rape your wife if you do so G-d Almighty will punish you with bad children]
stories from the Talmud: Kesubos 65a (and brought in the last Taz in Y"D 245) Rava demanding relations from his wife
Rav Moshe Finstain (6 page 148 middle of right column) side brings Tosvos Kesubos 22b that Shmuel's his wife was sick (she did not have energy) so she had the right to push him off
then on the next page, Rav Moshe Finstain clearly says, a wife is subjugated to her husband whenever he wants (if she is healthy)
and similarly (in Dibros Moshe Gitin page 511 top left colomn in parenthesis or in Igros Moshe Orach Chaim 6:2.5)
דמן התורה הא ליכא שום שעבוד על האשה לבעלה חוץ מתשמיש