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The concept of bittul berov means that in certain cases, if some non-kosher food gets mixed up in as much kosher food of the same type such that nobody knows which piece is the non-kosher part, the non-kosher bit becomes nullified, making everything acceptable to be eaten. Does this rule apply to non-Jews as well? This could come up in a situation where some food is known to be ever min ha chai, but would be nullified in a greater amount of food that is known to be acceptable for b'nei Noach to eat.

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    a mpre fundamental question is whether gentiles have shiurim. If not one needs to ask if what the default would be for a Jew without shiurim. The answer might be that very small amounts were never forbidden (this can be proven from an opinion in the Yerushalmi that shiurim are rabbinic. Rabbis cannot permit the forbidden, so small amounts must have always been permitted, although there is room to dispute this proof). If small amounts are permissible anyway, then the question of bittul does not even begin.
    – mevaqesh
    May 31, 2016 at 21:28
  • Often when a Noahide brings up cruelty issues common in the US meat supply, rabbis will refer to bittul berov. Existing laws are in line with ever min ha chai and any issues are small compared to the whole supply chain. Or so they say.
    – user34203
    Jan 17 at 23:59

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According to the Sdei Chemed, this question dates back to the Pri Megadim (Yoreh Deah 62) who has a safek about whether bittul helps for ever min ha-chai to a ben noach. Subsequently, this became a popular topic of debate, and the Sdei Chemed records many acharonim on each side of the issue.

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    Does he come out with any Pesak?
    – Hacham Gabriel
    Jun 28, 2013 at 21:21

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