I assume that when a parent owns an object and a child uses it, it remains the property of the parent's absent any intent/declaration on the parent's part to grant it to the child (and absent an act of kinyan, acquisition). Thus, for example, if a parent buys a piece of furniture and puts it in the child's room in the parent's house, whether that child is a bar mitzva or not yet, but assuming the child is dependent on the parent, then the furniture remains the parent's. (If that's wrong, please source a correction, and that'd make a good answer.)
My questions are:
- Do any sources discuss whether referring to the object as the child's constitutes a declaration of intent to grant it to the child? For example, if the parent says "this X is yours" or "this X is for you" or "your X is dirty", do any sources say that constitutes sufficient declaration of intent to grant the X to the child, so that the child need then only drag or lift the X (SA CM 200:2) in order to acquire it?
If not — if, in fact, the object remains the parent's property —
Or, in a case in which such acquisition has not occurred, and the object is, so far, the parent's property —
- Is there any extent to which a parent-owned object assigned to the use of a specific child (again, whether a minor or a bar mitzva but assuming the child is dependent on and living with the parent) is considered that child's? That is, is there any halacha such that the object, although technically owned by the parents, is considered the child's for the purposes of that halacha?