This year, 5778, the last day of Pesach in Israel is on Friday. Is there any possible way that one could contrive to eat chometz on the shabbos immediately following Pesach?
-
Calendrically and geographically related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/9848– msh210 ♦Commented Mar 19, 2012 at 17:08
-
Also calendrically and geographically related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/70769– msh210 ♦Commented Apr 27, 2016 at 16:23
Add a comment
|
5 Answers
As long as it's Pesach (i.e. until Friday at dark), a Jew cannot own any kind of chametz. Once Pesach ends, Shabbos immediately begins. A Jew cannot use money to (re)purchase chametz, and can't cook/bake any new chametz.
For this reason, even in Israel, observant Jews will use matza for their shabbos "challah" on the shabbos immeditaely after Pesach (known as the 8th day of Pesach in the Diaspora).
For Ashkenazi Israeli Jews, there is one way to make a clear distinction between the food on the shabbos after Pesach, and Pesach itself.
The custom of refraining from kitnyios on Pesach only applies to eating it. Ashkenazi Jews may own, do commerce with, and benefit from kitnyios throughout Pesach.
So, buy some Pesach-certified kitnyios food on Chol HaMoed. Once shabbos starts, break out the rice, corn, beans, have a festive kitnyios meal!
For shabbos lunch, I highly recommend a salami sandwich, on matza, with MUSTARD (another kitnyios item).
Since this question only applies in Israel, I must disagree with msh210's suggestion. Here in Israel, there is a high probability that the fresh chametz product came into existence with at least some forbidden assistance from a Jew. Even if it came from an Arab-owned bakery that is certified kosher - that kosher supervision doesn't apply on Pesach! So, you can't eat it because it wasn't under kosher supervision at the time it was baked, so you have no way of knowing what exactly is in the chametz product.
-
DoubleAA's suggestion (in a comment on the question) of mixing wheat and water would seem to do. Mine in my answer would seem to do if the gentile gives you stuff made before Pesach, like packaged cookies.– msh210 ♦Commented Feb 14, 2012 at 20:32
-
2@msh210 that's what you're chalishing for after a week of sweets? packaged cookies? :o)– user1095Commented Feb 14, 2012 at 20:36
-
The same would go, I suppose, for matza 'ashira, for able-bodied, adult Ashkenazim.– Isaac Moses ♦Commented Feb 14, 2012 at 20:36
-
@IsaacMoses, and matza sh'ruya, for those who don't eat it.– msh210 ♦Commented Feb 14, 2012 at 20:37
-
1+1 for explaining nicely what the common practice is in Israel, though I won't give answer credit, since technically the question I was asking was about how one could eat chometz on that shabbos, not on what alternatives you have. Commented Feb 15, 2012 at 8:16
Per the Yalkut Yosef 448:5:
It is permitted to eat Chometz on a Shabbos which is immediately after Sheviyi Shel Pesach - there is no Muktza involved, and if it was sold to the non Jew according to Halacha you may eat it on the day of Shabbos immediately after Sheviyi Shel Pesach. However you have to be extra careful not to take the chometz on Sheviyi Shel Pesach since then you will be prohibited to eat it since you have done Baal Yiro'eh U'Baal Yimotzei. (Yechave Daas 2 Siman 64, Yabia Omer Orach Chaim 9 Siman 46)
מותר לאכול חמץ בשבת שלאחר שביעי של פסח, ואין בזה איסור משום מוקצה, וכן חמץ שנמכר לגוי כהלכה, מותר לאוכלו ביום שבת שלאחר שביעי של פסח, ולא אמרינן מיגו דאיתקצאי בבין השמשות במוקצה מחמת יום שעבר. ובלבד שלא יטול מהחמץ בעצם יום השביעי של פסח, שאם כן הרי הוא עובר עליו בבל יראה ובבל ימצא. וגם הוא חמץ של ישראל שעבר עליו הפסח שאסור בהנאה.
answered Mar 19, 2012 at 15:15
-
1
-
3R. Ovadya writes: ובהיות שבשטר מכירת החמץ לגוי נכתב במפורש, שהגוי מרשה למוכרי החמץ לקחת אחר הפסח מהחמץ שנמכר מאליו, וישלמו לו אחר כך מחיר החמץ, אין לחוש בזה גם משום גזל הגוי שהוא אסור, כמבואר בחשן משפט (סימן שמח סעיף ב, וסימן שנט סעיף א). ולכן מותר ליטול ולאכול מן החמץ הנמכר לגוי בשבת שאחר שביעי של פסח, ואין לחוש בזה כלל Commented Mar 21, 2012 at 20:30
-
The question is whether the mechiras chametz that is performed included the additional language R. Ovadya requires. Commented Mar 21, 2012 at 20:51
-
2This year my Rav, Rabbi Yaacov Haber, specifically dealt with this question in a shiur. He mentioned that according to the contract that he signs with the non-Jew, there is a specific clause written in that if, after the completion of Pesach, the Jew wishes to partake of his (the non-Jew's) chometz, he gives permission to do so, and the value will be deducted from the amount owing upon collection. He also mentioned this teshuva of Rav Ovadia ZT"L Commented Apr 11, 2015 at 18:59
-
@Curiouser Perhaps your comment should be edited into the answer?– DanFCommented Mar 29, 2018 at 14:15
Eat bread at a non Jew's house.
answered Feb 14, 2012 at 18:59
-
4Please specify how to get around muktze and/or maaseh shabbos issues. See comments to @msh210's answer.– jakeCommented Feb 14, 2012 at 19:21
-
I like this answer most. Short, sweet and to the point. As to @jake's question about muktze, see my comment there. IMO if the non-Jew bought a kosher challah before Pesach and froze it, then the moment Pesach departs, the challah is no longer muktze, so if he invites you to join him for a meal, you can accept, and you don't have to make a kinyan on food that your host offers you, so there's no issue there, either. Commented Feb 15, 2012 at 8:14
-
How about if the Gentile brings you a bread (his) and eats it in your home? It sounds easier!– DanFCommented Mar 29, 2018 at 14:19
-
I don't see why a gentile couldn't give you some on Shabas[1]; you could even eat it if he hadn't made it for you. Of course, consult your rabbi for practical matters rather than relying on what you read here.
[1] But see the comments to this answer.
-
3There's the issue of giving gifts on Shabbat regarding kinyanim. Also, he could have made it before Shabbat.– Double AA ♦Commented Feb 14, 2012 at 19:01
-
3I don't think this would work. Chametz is muktza on Pesach and whatever is muktza bein hashmashos continues to be muktza over Shabbos.– jakeCommented Feb 14, 2012 at 19:14
-
2@jake Good point. The gentile could have cooked it after bein hashemashot, but then you have maaseh shabbat issues as msh210 originally expected. I wonder though if a gentile's chametz is muktza on pesach...– Double AA ♦Commented Feb 14, 2012 at 19:16
-
2@DoubleAA, It would have to be a non-Jew cooking for himself on Shabbos and having extra leftovers. Or the same with a Jew cooking for a sick person who needs food.– jakeCommented Feb 14, 2012 at 19:19
-
5I like the sound of this. Let's paint the scenario: Shaul walks into his non-Jewish neighbor's house. "Hi Bill! Are you in the mood for kosher mac-and-cheese made in a new pot? I think you are. Go ahead and make some for yourself while I wait here. Don't underestimate how hungry you are!"– jakeCommented Feb 14, 2012 at 19:30
This year my Rav, Rabbi Yaacov Haber, specifically dealt with this question in a shiur. He mentioned that according to the contract that he signs with the non-Jew, there is a specific clause written in that if, after the completion of Pesach, the Jew wishes to partake of his (the non-Jew's) chometz, he gives permission to do so, and the value will be deducted from the amount owing upon collection. Therefore it is permitted to partake of chometz that you sold to the non-Jew on the shabbos following Pesach, so long as this clause was in the contract of sale.
Muktzeh is not a consideration, since the chometz belongs to a non-Jew, and a non-Jew's property does not become muktzeh.