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Dec 25, 2020 at 12:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackJudaism/status/1342439953377144833
Jan 27, 2019 at 18:17 comment added DonielF This seems to be contrary to Kiddushin 2b-3a, FWIW. Yes, I know that Gemara probably came from the Savoraim, not the Amoraim, but it’s still earlier than Ben Ezra.
Jan 27, 2019 at 8:20 history edited Al Berko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 27, 2019 at 8:19 comment added Al Berko @shim if I understand the rule right, there's no default gender at all. It's totally arbitrary. Hence the discussion is seemingly pointless.
Jan 27, 2019 at 7:42 comment added shmu The Gemara could embrace the Ibn Ezra's grammatical rule, but still discuss which gender is assigned by default to the word "derech". Admittedly, the word could be rendered masculine or feminine, but which is the default gender? This makes a difference in interpretation, because whenever the word diverts from its default gender, there will be a reason for it that affects the interpretation. SR Hirsch, for one, commonly interprets such diversions from the default gender of a word.
Jan 26, 2019 at 20:11 history asked Al Berko CC BY-SA 4.0