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Jan 1, 2019 at 11:04 comment added b a @JoeyFriedman Syntactically it's the direct object of עשה and can take את (example: 2 Samuel 19:39). For objects with ה' and without את there are many more examples: תֶּן־לִ֣י הַנֶּ֔פֶשׁ וְהָרְכֻ֖שׁ קַֽח־לָֽךְ (Genesis 14:21). וְהַדֶּ֖לֶת סָגַ֥ר אַחֲרָֽיו (Genesis 19:6, סגר is masculine so its subject is Lot). וַֽיִּגְּשׁ֖וּ לִשְׁבֹּ֥ר הַדָּֽלֶת (Genesis 19:10). וְהַמַּטֶּ֛ה אֲשֶׁר־נֶהְפַּ֥ךְ לְנָחָ֖שׁ תִּקַּ֥ח בְּיָדֶֽךָ (Exodus 7:15). If you include definite words without ה' (words with possessive suffixes or names), there are many more
Jan 1, 2019 at 6:08 comment added Joey Friedman With respect, הטוב does not refer to an object, it refers to a personal evaluation. Do you have other examples of Hei Hayediyot attached to objects where there is no את?
Dec 31, 2018 at 15:39 comment added b a @user6591 ותקח אשה הילד doesn't feel any less rough to me. I do think (not sure) that most of the cases of missing את are where the subject is implied or part of the verb, which would make this verse exceptional
Dec 31, 2018 at 15:03 comment added user6591 On the subject itself it wouldn't. But this situation of being on both of them, makes the read rough. If you have examples of this type of reading being common, that might dismiss the question.
Dec 31, 2018 at 14:55 comment added b a @user6591 Since when is ה' הידיעה on the subject a cause for את?
Dec 31, 2018 at 14:12 comment added user6591 I think the hei hayidia on both the word isha and yeled of the op's verse make the structure different than the verses you've presented here, and mare fitting to have the 'ess'.
Dec 31, 2018 at 9:24 comment added b a @JoeyFriedman טוב is a direct object so the rule would have it as ואת הטוב בעיניך עשיתי. But grammar rules are meant to describe the language, not the other way around, and the rule should take into account the fact that את is also sometimes omitted. There are many more cases of missing את in the Bible
Dec 31, 2018 at 5:18 comment added Joey Friedman I don't understand the relevance of your first source from 2 Kings (how would את fit there?), but the second is certainly compelling. That having been said, it is certainly a Dikduk rule to precede a definite article with את. Consequently, now my question extends to Yechezkel! Who knew!
Dec 30, 2018 at 9:31 history answered b a CC BY-SA 4.0