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Feb 17, 2019 at 16:52 history edited user15464 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 25, 2018 at 15:08 answer added user15464 timeline score: 2
Nov 22, 2018 at 8:27 comment added user18155 There should be no reason to allow it (barring other considerations - perhaps darchei Shalom). You don't need to think up lots of examples where there is absolutely no reason to think that Jew X would have relations with non-Jew Y, and still it would be forbidden. For example, can a ger eat his parents' food made by them, even if kashrus considerations were not relevant? No. The intention of Chazal would be a lo plug - even when the reasons don't necessarily apply. Also, it would only help for the persons concerned - the food would be assur to Jews outside of that circle?
Nov 21, 2018 at 3:01 history tweeted twitter.com/StackJudaism/status/1065077717224312832
Nov 20, 2018 at 22:08 comment added chacham Nisan In such a case where darkei shalom absolutely applies, it seems one could rely on the Rama's ruling l'chatchila regarding fire and possibly the Rashba's(?) ruling not requiring fire in a Jewish house(this needs more investigation since the father is not Jewish). See Shulchan Aruch Yoreh Deah 113:4, 6, & 7. This needs the judgement of a competent and understanding posek.
Nov 20, 2018 at 20:21 comment added Double AA Do we have any examples of subjectivity in this regard? It's not like male gentiles don't effect Bishul Akum for male Jews
Nov 20, 2018 at 20:18 history edited Isaac Moses
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Nov 20, 2018 at 20:07 history edited Aaron CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 20, 2018 at 19:54 history asked Aaron CC BY-SA 4.0