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Oct 31, 2018 at 9:43 comment added DonielF I don’t see what you’re getting at with those links. You’ve sufficiently demonstrated already that a גזרה could be a time of שמד, but you haven’t demonstrated that they are inherently the same thing.
Oct 30, 2018 at 19:35 comment added Benyomin Walters I think שמד is simply the Aramaic synonym of גזירה, implying forced conversion or religious persecution. Jastrow lists many relevant uses. tyndalearchive.com/TABS/Jastrow/ Also see: he.wiktionary.org/wiki/%D7%A9%D7%9E%D7%93
Oct 30, 2018 at 19:26 comment added DonielF Common sense? They’re two different terms - of course they mean different things. I’d think the burden of proof is on the one who claims that Hebrew has perfect synonyms.
Oct 30, 2018 at 19:07 comment added Benyomin Walters Can you direct me to a source that makes this distinction? I'd be interested to see.
Oct 30, 2018 at 13:36 comment added DonielF You confuse גזרת שמד with just plain old שמד. A גזרת המלכות is a time of שמד, but a time of שמד is not necessarily גזרת המלכות. Unless you assume that if it’s a time of שמד and the powers that be refuse to do anything about it is the same as גזרת המלכות, as they implicitly agree with it, but that’s a huge חידוש that I’ve never heard anyone say before.
Oct 29, 2018 at 17:12 comment added Benyomin Walters I think these are merely two versions of the text. And my understanding of the word שמד is a time of forced conversion or the like. (It is only used colloquially to refer to dangerous times.) See: daat.ac.il/encyclopedia/value.asp?id1=2519 and aspaklaria.info/003_GIMEL/…
Oct 29, 2018 at 17:00 comment added DonielF If they were synonymous there would be no reason to substitute one for the other. גזרת המלכות implies an official decree against Judaism, while שמד is simply a dangerous time to practice Judaism. Take the Holocaust as an example: there was nothing official against Judaism until Kristalnacht or so; before was just Shemad, while after was Gezeiras HaMalchus as well.
Oct 29, 2018 at 16:52 history edited Benyomin Walters CC BY-SA 4.0
Clarification as per comment by OP
Oct 29, 2018 at 16:46 comment added Benyomin Walters I'm sorry, but I didn't catch that was your focus. Either way, aren't the two terms synonymous? "שגזרה מלכות הרשעה שמד על ישראל שלא יעסקו בתורה, ושלא ימולו את בניהם, ושיחללו שבתות" (תלמוד בבלי, מסכת ראש השנה, דף י"ט, עמוד א')
Oct 26, 2018 at 9:35 review Low quality posts
Oct 26, 2018 at 14:20
Oct 26, 2018 at 9:34 comment added DonielF I’m asking according to the reading of the Gemara of Sha’as Shemad, and you answer me that the Halacha follows the reading of Sha’as Gezeiras Malchus? This doesn’t address my question at all.
Oct 25, 2018 at 22:26 history answered Benyomin Walters CC BY-SA 4.0