Timeline for Had an unmarried Jewish woman ever owned a male slave, whom she acquired or asked to become her husband?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
15 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Aug 18, 2017 at 14:11 | comment | added | hazoriz | @ninamag I think technically it is considered a gift not inheritence | |
| Aug 18, 2017 at 14:09 | comment | added | ninamag | @hazoriz Though it is unlikely that a Jew/Jewess would ask for his/her family inheritance while the father is still alive, surely many a father upon learning of his impending demise have actually dispensed the inheritance to his child while still alive, no? (This, in part, is practiced when an old king is still alive, he sometimes hands-over already the heritable monarchy to his child.) | |
| Aug 18, 2017 at 12:20 | comment | added | hazoriz | @ninamag the case can be her husband dyes her father is still alive now she owns the slaves (if you can inherit from a living person then yes) | |
| Aug 18, 2017 at 12:12 | comment | added | ninamag | @hazoriz if her father gave her male slaves, is not that also the same way to say, she inherited males slaves from her father? | |
| Aug 18, 2017 at 12:09 | comment | added | hazoriz | @ninamag upon the death of her husband yes, inherited them no, it is quite possible she was given the slaves as dowry from her father, but her husband has the right to use her property until he dyes or divorces her (a wife never inherits her husband, unless she was his cousin (or other relative) and no other relatives are alive) | |
| Aug 18, 2017 at 4:04 | comment | added | ninamag | @hazoriz מתני׳ בת ישראל שניסת לכהן ומת והניחה מעוברת לא יאכלו עבדיה בתרומה מפני חלקו של עובר שהעובר פוסל ואינו מאכיל דברי ר' יוסי (Yevamot 67a), does this passage not suggest that the reason she owns the slaves is because she inherited them from and upon the death of her husband? | |
| Aug 17, 2017 at 19:46 | comment | added | hazoriz | @ninamag I see that she owns male slaves but nothing about inheritance in that Source sefaria.org/Yevamot.67a.4 | |
| Aug 17, 2017 at 19:29 | comment | added | ninamag | @hazoriz Does not Yevamoth 67a clearly examples a woman who inherits and, therefore, owns male slaves? | |
| Aug 17, 2017 at 19:23 | comment | added | hazoriz | @ninamag it does not say anything about who the owner of the slave is, it seems it is also reffuring to when she was not the owner | |
| Aug 17, 2017 at 17:46 | comment | added | ninamag | To me this shows what a Jewish woman would halachically do, before her man-slave can become her husband. Now whether this was done in the Tanach we would need a different source. | |
| Aug 17, 2017 at 17:31 | review | Low quality posts | |||
| Aug 20, 2017 at 2:00 | |||||
| Aug 17, 2017 at 17:26 | comment | added | msh210♦ | Interesting, but the question was whether a woman owned a slave. I don't see how this answers it. | |
| Aug 17, 2017 at 17:22 | history | edited | sabbahillel | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 48 characters in body
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| Aug 17, 2017 at 17:16 | history | edited | sabbahillel | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 48 characters in body
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| Aug 17, 2017 at 16:28 | history | answered | sabbahillel | CC BY-SA 3.0 |