2 Improved my question
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In Devarim 1:37, Moshe tells us that

גַּם־בִּי֙ הִתְאַנַּ֣ף יְהוָ֔ה בִּגְלַלְכֶ֖ם לֵאמֹ֑ר גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁם

Because of you the LORD was incensed with me too, and He said: You shall not enter it either.

The only problem is that Eretz Yisrael (and every land in general) is nikaiva (feminine) so the Torah should have said גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁמָּה

  • Is Moshe saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael or someplace else (ex: another land, one specific part of Eretz Yisrael?

  • If he IS saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael, why does he refer to the land in zachar (masculine) and not nikaiva?

  • If he ISN'T saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael, then to where is he referring?


Based on the comments of DonielF, I am also wondering if anyone knows why referring to Moshe it says שם and why in the next pasuk referring to Yehoshua, the Torah uses the word שמה?

In Devarim 1:37, Moshe tells us that

גַּם־בִּי֙ הִתְאַנַּ֣ף יְהוָ֔ה בִּגְלַלְכֶ֖ם לֵאמֹ֑ר גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁם

Because of you the LORD was incensed with me too, and He said: You shall not enter it either.

The only problem is that Eretz Yisrael (and every land in general) is nikaiva (feminine) so the Torah should have said גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁמָּה

  • Is Moshe saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael or someplace else (ex: another land, one specific part of Eretz Yisrael?

  • If he IS saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael, why does he refer to the land in zachar (masculine) and not nikaiva?

  • If he ISN'T saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael, then to where is he referring?

In Devarim 1:37, Moshe tells us that

גַּם־בִּי֙ הִתְאַנַּ֣ף יְהוָ֔ה בִּגְלַלְכֶ֖ם לֵאמֹ֑ר גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁם

Because of you the LORD was incensed with me too, and He said: You shall not enter it either.

The only problem is that Eretz Yisrael (and every land in general) is nikaiva (feminine) so the Torah should have said גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁמָּה

  • Is Moshe saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael or someplace else (ex: another land, one specific part of Eretz Yisrael?

  • If he IS saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael, why does he refer to the land in zachar (masculine) and not nikaiva?

  • If he ISN'T saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael, then to where is he referring?


Based on the comments of DonielF, I am also wondering if anyone knows why referring to Moshe it says שם and why in the next pasuk referring to Yehoshua, the Torah uses the word שמה?

1
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Where is exactly is שָֽׁם in the pasuk גַּם־בִּי֙ הִתְאַנַּ֣ף יְהוָ֔ה בִּגְלַלְכֶ֖ם לֵאמֹ֑ר גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁם (Devarim 1:37)

In Devarim 1:37, Moshe tells us that

גַּם־בִּי֙ הִתְאַנַּ֣ף יְהוָ֔ה בִּגְלַלְכֶ֖ם לֵאמֹ֑ר גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁם

Because of you the LORD was incensed with me too, and He said: You shall not enter it either.

The only problem is that Eretz Yisrael (and every land in general) is nikaiva (feminine) so the Torah should have said גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁמָּה

  • Is Moshe saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael or someplace else (ex: another land, one specific part of Eretz Yisrael?

  • If he IS saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael, why does he refer to the land in zachar (masculine) and not nikaiva?

  • If he ISN'T saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael, then to where is he referring?