Timeline for How could different pronunciations arise when we are obligated to pronounce the Shema precisely?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 16, 2020 at 10:41 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
Commonmark migration
|
|
| Jan 12, 2017 at 4:22 | comment | added | josh waxman | Also, the questioner said that each person would have heard with exact precision from his father. This isn't so much so if people were fulfilling bedieved. It might have been quite common that people were lax, if they were still fulfilling. (Separately, I would say that national shifts in letter pronunciation is not the dikdek be'otiyoteha that even Rabbi Yehuda was speaking about. And he would not say that Shemaya, Avtalyon, and perhaps even Hillel did not fulfill Shema.) | |
| Jan 12, 2017 at 4:19 | comment | added | josh waxman | A does affect B, I think. If one absolutely didn't fulfill, then the Rabbis, faced with people not fulfilling a Biblical requirement, would certainly step in (according to the questioner), and teach how to be precise. If they were still fulfilling, the rabbis might well let this natural development slide. So IMHO the "insofar" does work. | |
| Jan 12, 2017 at 4:15 | comment | added | Double AA♦ | I'm not so sure... meta.judaism.stackexchange.com/a/2182/759 | |
| Jan 12, 2017 at 4:11 | history | answered | josh waxman | CC BY-SA 3.0 |