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Sep 8, 2016 at 14:17 history closed Isaac Moses
Yishai
sabbahillel
Noach MiFrankfurt
Gershon Gold
Duplicate of Does Joshua 8:34-35 disprove oral law's existence?, Why don't we just follow the shittah of Moshe Rabeinu?, God created both the written law and the oral before the world was created. Why didn't he make all of it 'written'?
Sep 7, 2016 at 19:49 answer added Aaron timeline score: 15
Sep 7, 2016 at 18:29 comment added mevaqesh In regards to sacrifice and offerings, that is interpreted as being limited to the Temple in Jerusalem. The current political climate does not allow for this.If by clothing requirement you mean not wearing mixed fibers, that is interpreted as referring to wool and linen in particular; which observant Jews do continue to practice.
Sep 7, 2016 at 18:28 comment added Adám Animal sacrifice, grain offerings: We do do them in principle, but without temple (and other places are forbidden by Torah law) , we just cannot. Clothing requirements: You mean T'echeiles? Same issue; we don't know what it is, so we cannot.
Sep 7, 2016 at 18:25 comment added mevaqesh @Jesse the issue of rabbis introducing additional legislation is not necessarily pay of the conversation, as it does not oppose the law. To a lesser degree this is the case with interpretation as well. Rabbinic Judaism believes that it's supreme court had the right to interpret the law; this is not a matter of trumping.
Sep 7, 2016 at 18:21 comment added mevaqesh @Jesse if you want another user to be listened of your comments, put a @ in front of his username in your comment.
Sep 7, 2016 at 17:51 history edited Jesse CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 7 characters in body
Sep 7, 2016 at 17:39 comment added Jesse I mean animal sacrifice, grain offerings, clothing requirements. All the stuff modern Jews seem to ignore.
Sep 7, 2016 at 17:14 comment added DanF Please define what you mean by "Old law". If these laws are applicable today (AFAIK, they most certainly are!) then, they are, very much new and current, not "old". If the focus of your question is why not follow just the written Torah laws w/o any Rabbinical interpretation, that's what the Sadducees and Karaites did. If we did this, we prob. would be wearing tefillin on our noses, among other things.
Sep 7, 2016 at 16:43 review Close votes
Sep 8, 2016 at 14:17
Sep 7, 2016 at 16:19 history edited Isaac Moses CC BY-SA 3.0
Removed off-topic, unrelated tack-on question.
Sep 7, 2016 at 16:16 answer added TrustMeI'mARabbi timeline score: 0
Sep 7, 2016 at 16:12 comment added rosends judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/67621/…
Sep 7, 2016 at 15:56 comment added Jesse So the Jewish higher-ups trump G-d's word?
Sep 7, 2016 at 15:29 comment added mevaqesh Regarding Mosaic Law, Rabbinic Judaism believes that that the Sanhedrin (Supreme Court of Judaism) has the right to both interpret the Law, and legislate new laws. Thus, the final result may look very different from the implications of Mosaic Law. Regarding theocracy, the issue is moot, as religiously observant Jews generally lack political autonomy. See also judaism.stackexchange.com/a/73789/8775 regarding diverse views on the merits of secularism (a subset of which is democracy) vs. theocracy.
Sep 7, 2016 at 15:17 comment added kouty Moses was not a book, he was a teacher.
Sep 7, 2016 at 15:13 history asked Jesse CC BY-SA 3.0