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Nov 30, 2017 at 23:16 comment added DanF @kouty The term מְבָרֵךְ of course, doesn't imply any specific phrasing. The Gemara does somewhat define a bracha as needing shem vemalchut. Thus, it's questionable if that formality is what is implied here. It doesn't seem that way, otherwise, we woul dhave some standardized bracha that we should say everytime something good happens. Unless Hatov Vehameitiv is implied by this statement.
Mar 31, 2016 at 20:14 answer added ezra timeline score: 1
Mar 3, 2016 at 22:22 history tweeted twitter.com/StackJudaism/status/705518828650893312
Mar 3, 2016 at 14:48 answer added Gershon Gold timeline score: 4
Mar 3, 2016 at 6:16 history edited msh210 CC BY-SA 3.0
I assume....
Mar 3, 2016 at 4:47 comment added kouty mishna Berachoth (9, 5) חַיָּב אָדָם לְבָרֵךְ עַל הָרָעָה כְּשֵׁם שֶׁהוּא מְבָרֵךְ עַל הַטּוֹבָה, שֶׁנֶּאֱמַר (דברים ו) וְאָהַבְתָּ אֵת יְיָ אֱלֹהֶיךָ בְּכָל לְבָבְךָ וּבְכָל נַפְשְׁךָ וּבְכָל מְאֹדֶךָ. וכו'... בְּכָל מְאֹדֶךָ, בְּכָל מִדָּה וּמִדָּה שֶׁהוּא מוֹדֵד לְךָ הֱוֵי מוֹדֶה לוֹ בִּמְאֹד מְאֹד It seems that the custom comes from the verse in Kriath Shema.
Mar 3, 2016 at 4:09 history edited Double AA
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Mar 3, 2016 at 4:09 comment added Double AA related judaism.stackexchange.com/q/61587/759
Mar 3, 2016 at 4:00 history asked yagoodi CC BY-SA 3.0