Timeline for Why is Jeremiah 10:11 written in Aramaic?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jan 12, 2016 at 6:50 | comment | added | Fred | In general, see Ramban on Sh'mos 30:13 ("וכן הטעם אצלי במה שרבותינו קוראין לשון התורה לשון הקודש שהוא מפני שדברי התורה והנבואות וכל דברי קדושה כולם בלשון ההוא נאמרו"). | |
| Jan 11, 2016 at 20:34 | comment | added | Fred | At that time, many Jews still were not fluent in Aramaic. See, for another example, Daniyeil 1:4, where the king chose young Jewish men and had to instruct them in "ספר ולשון כשדים" (and see M'tzudas David on 2:4, who interprets "לשון כשדים" as referring to standard Aramaic; Ibn Ezra ad loc. appears to say likewise). | |
| Jan 11, 2016 at 8:09 | comment | added | Fred | +1. The distinction between the two verses seems to be that HaShem is addressing Yirm'yahu in 25:27, while in 10:11 Yirm'yahu is addressing the Jewish people (who didn't all speak Aramaic very well, see Y'sha'ya 36:11) regarding how to say what they should say. | |
| Jan 11, 2016 at 5:55 | history | answered | msh210♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |