I'm an outsider to Judaism trying to understand the nature of revelation, in particular the revelation that is Torah. So far I've learned that God spoke to MosesGod spoke to Moses (puh) - in the literal sense - and dictated the Torah. However, that still doesn't clear a few things. My questions are embedded in the following text (please bear with the lengthy explanation).
Interpretation is the most important element of communication. In essence, every form of communication (involving humans) is transfer of "interpretation" - idea, understanding, implied meaning - from source to target. In the case of revelation at Mount Sinai it is the Divine Idea that God wanted his chosen Prophet and people to have. A perfect communication is where the intended understanding is perfectly achieved.
The integrity of the channel or transmission of Divine Idea is not a question since God spoke Himself eliminating all possible interference, however, what I couldn't find an explicit explanation of was: Did Moses (puh) interpret the Word of God using his human faculties? How was the interpretation of the Word of God safeguarded from human fallibility? Is it that revelation of the highest level necessarily comprises - to put it bluntly - God planting the implied/correct meaning in the recipient's mind as well? Is it that a Prophetic interpretation, even though humanly, is in line with divine intention, i.e. it is the infallibility of the Prophet rather than the message?
In the light of the above, there is also confusion regarding the nature of "divine inspiration," as that seems just another word for genesis of an idea in human mind through divine will - an interpretation sans word?