2 from the OP's comment; edited tags

Suppose someone is eating a fruit which requires a bracha rishona of ha'etz, but the person accidentally makes a ha'adama. Since ha'adama is the more general bracha, it covers his fruit and he does not make another bracha. Now suppose he wants to eat a different fruit which is a ha'adama fruit. This fruit would not have been covered by his ha'eitz bracha had he made it properly; however, since he made a ha'adama, would his second food be covered by his original bracha?

Assume both fruits were sitting out when he made the first bracha and whatever other assumptions are necessary such that if the first fruit had been as adama fruit, the second would have been covered.

Suppose someone is eating a fruit which requires a bracha rishona of ha'etz, but the person accidentally makes a ha'adama. Since ha'adama is the more general bracha, it covers his fruit and he does not make another bracha. Now suppose he wants to eat a different fruit which is a ha'adama fruit. This fruit would not have been covered by his ha'eitz bracha had he made it properly; however, since he made a ha'adama, would his second food be covered by his original bracha?

Suppose someone is eating a fruit which requires a bracha rishona of ha'etz, but the person accidentally makes a ha'adama. Since ha'adama is the more general bracha, it covers his fruit and he does not make another bracha. Now suppose he wants to eat a different fruit which is a ha'adama fruit. This fruit would not have been covered by his ha'eitz bracha had he made it properly; however, since he made a ha'adama, would his second food be covered by his original bracha?

Assume both fruits were sitting out when he made the first bracha and whatever other assumptions are necessary such that if the first fruit had been as adama fruit, the second would have been covered.