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Why דָּת in Esther but דַּתדַּת in kidushin?

There are two places "דָּת" appears in Tanach in a form that means "the law of": Esther 2:12 and 9:13. In both places it appears as "דָּת" with a kamatz.[1]

Yet, when we marry, according to the ArtScroll sidur, we say "הרי את מקדשת לי בטבעת זו כְּדַתכְּדַת משה וישראל", with a patach. (That's as we might naively have expected from pairs like שֻׁלְחָן ("table", Psalms 78:19) and שֻׁלְחַן ("the table of", Malachi 1:7[1]).)

What gives?

  • Is ArtScroll simply wrong?
  • Or is there a grammatical distinction to be made between Esther and the marriage ceremony which affects the vowel to be used in "דת"?
  • Or did Hebrew change (in this respect) between Esther's time and the composition of that line in the marriage ceremony?
  • Or what?

1. Possibly of interest, it appears in both placesthere without a following makaf. I'm not sure what, if anything, the relevance of that fact is.

Why דָּת in Esther but דַּת in kidushin?

There are two places "דָּת" appears in Tanach in a form that means "the law of": Esther 2:12 and 9:13. In both places it appears as "דָּת" with a kamatz.[1]

Yet, when we marry, according to the ArtScroll sidur, we say "הרי את מקדשת לי בטבעת זו כְּדַת משה וישראל", with a patach.

What gives?

  • Is ArtScroll simply wrong?
  • Or is there a grammatical distinction to be made between Esther and the marriage ceremony which affects the vowel to be used in "דת"?
  • Or did Hebrew change (in this respect) between Esther's time and the composition of that line in the marriage ceremony?
  • Or what?

1. Possibly of interest, it appears in both places without a following makaf. I'm not sure what, if anything, the relevance of that fact is.

Why דָּת in Esther but דַּת in kidushin?

There are two places "דָּת" appears in Tanach in a form that means "the law of": Esther 2:12 and 9:13. In both places it appears as "דָּת" with a kamatz.[1]

Yet, when we marry, according to the ArtScroll sidur, we say "הרי את מקדשת לי בטבעת זו כְּדַת משה וישראל", with a patach. (That's as we might naively have expected from pairs like שֻׁלְחָן ("table", Psalms 78:19) and שֻׁלְחַן ("the table of", Malachi 1:7[1]).)

What gives?

  • Is ArtScroll simply wrong?
  • Or is there a grammatical distinction to be made between Esther and the marriage ceremony which affects the vowel to be used in "דת"?
  • Or did Hebrew change (in this respect) between Esther's time and the composition of that line in the marriage ceremony?
  • Or what?

1. Possibly of interest, it appears there without a following makaf. I'm not sure what, if anything, the relevance of that fact is.

1
source | link

Why דָּת in Esther but דַּת in kidushin?

There are two places "דָּת" appears in Tanach in a form that means "the law of": Esther 2:12 and 9:13. In both places it appears as "דָּת" with a kamatz.[1]

Yet, when we marry, according to the ArtScroll sidur, we say "הרי את מקדשת לי בטבעת זו כְּדַת משה וישראל", with a patach.

What gives?

  • Is ArtScroll simply wrong?
  • Or is there a grammatical distinction to be made between Esther and the marriage ceremony which affects the vowel to be used in "דת"?
  • Or did Hebrew change (in this respect) between Esther's time and the composition of that line in the marriage ceremony?
  • Or what?

1. Possibly of interest, it appears in both places without a following makaf. I'm not sure what, if anything, the relevance of that fact is.