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Sep 21, 2020 at 19:57 comment added MDjava Why would you think not? It's used when making tea for consumption, and the tea is edible immediately afterwards.
Feb 24, 2019 at 15:11 comment added mbloch Many of the sources here would apply and suggest the answer is yes
Feb 24, 2019 at 10:33 history edited msh210 CC BY-SA 4.0
It's bumped anyway, so fix a typo and clarify which is the question.
Feb 24, 2019 at 10:01 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Feb 4, 2015 at 15:23 history edited Isaac Moses CC BY-SA 3.0
http://meta.judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/3426/lets-make-mi-yodeya-more-friendly-to-people-and-machines-that-cant-see-images
Nov 10, 2014 at 11:34 comment added CashCow Because the tea is cooked inside this utensil is a reason it might require it. I don't know the answer which is why I have not given an answer, just the two sides.
Nov 9, 2014 at 12:25 answer added Danny Schoemann timeline score: 1
Nov 9, 2014 at 2:37 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackJudaism/status/531274341871132674
Nov 8, 2014 at 22:39 comment added CashCow It might not require tevilah because it is not used to cook food but to filter out the part that you don't want, i.e. the tea leaves. The tea is there to flavour the water.
Nov 7, 2014 at 18:52 history edited Ani Yodea CC BY-SA 3.0
added 114 characters in body
Nov 7, 2014 at 18:51 history edited Isaac Moses
edited tags
Nov 7, 2014 at 18:50 history asked Ani Yodea CC BY-SA 3.0